fell in 5 waves and then bounced back in 3. Now we can mark this entire fall as wave 1. But then wave 2 so far is a very small a-b-c. Is it then only wave A of the bounce? This remains the question for the dollar bear market as well. What I can tell you is that during strong trends sometimes you do get small retrenchments. So a-b-c can end of it is A, both are open alternates.